Hello. I’ve been tied up with life lately, but I’m finally getting back into learning about all this. I shared some details with an old college friend of mine—a woman who has lived her adult years as the submissive partner in a traditional domestic discipline marriage. I told her that my interest in FLR and chastity started when I was looking into prostate stimulation. She then opened up to me, revealing that she uses a strap-on on her husband about once a week for many years—not because she’s acting dominant, but simply because he enjoys the feeling. She doesn’t view it as an act of dominance from her side; rather, it feels no different than “giving him oral sex”. I asked if she ever used those strap-ons that stimulate her too so she could climax herself, and she replied, “those things never work quite like they promise.” I know these devices can serve as a symbolic gesture of dominance and submission, or act to tease and deny the male’s final release, and even function as a way to milk without orgasm. However, I’d love to hear from people who have experience: how often does it happen that the woman climaxes while using the strap-on on her partner? For one thing, if there are any devices that help with this, I’d be glad to recommend them for my friend to look into. Another reason is that I find the role reversal aspects quite compelling. Traditionally, sex often ends when the male reaches orgasm every time, regardless of whether the female does too. So seeing it happen in reverse feels like a powerful idea to me. I’ve seen claims about FLR marriages where the husband can only climax by submitting to a strap-on. This makes me wonder how many women actually use them for this purpose and why or how they do so. I can see how it could be an intimate, bonding act that is also dominant—almost like a form of punishment if orgasm denial is part of the mix. But I also wonder: Is it common for women to achieve orgasm through strap-on use? And is it realistic to have situations where the woman uses the strap-on frequently mainly because she enjoys taking him in a dominant way until she reaches her own climax, or even beyond that point when she decides she’s satisfied? Meanwhile, his climax might just happen if he gets lucky—perhaps because she enjoyed watching him lose control like that, or simply because he arrived there before she decided to stop. In either case, the key is that she always came, while he did not. If any of that makes sense! Thanks.
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